CISF AC (Exe) LDCE: The Central Industrial Security Force Assistant Commandants Executive Limited Departmental Competitive Exam (CISF AC( EXE) LDCE) examination is a national level exam.
This exam is conducted for the recruitment of Assistant Commandants (Executive) in Central Industrial Security Force( CISF) by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
Highlights of CISF AC (Exe) LDCE
Exam
Central Industrial Security Force Assistant Commandants( Executive) Limited Departmental Competitive Exam CISF AC (Exe) LDCE
Organizing body
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Name of the post
Assistant Commandants (Executive)
Organization
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
Frequency
Once a year
Selection process
Written test, Physical Efficiency Test, Interview
Official website
www.upsc.gov.in
CISF AC (Exe) LDCE EXAM NOTIFICATION& IMPORTANT DATES
UPSC generally releases the date of Central Industrial Security Force Assistant Commandants Executive Limited Departmental Competitive Exam (CISF AC( EXE) LDCE in the month of December.
Aspirants willing to appear for this exam can apply online by visiting the official website of UPSC.
Event
Month
CISF AC (Exe) LDCE Notification
December
CISF AC (Exe) LDCE Admit Card
February
CISF AC (Exe) LDCE Exam
March
CISF AC (Exe) LDCE Interview
July
CISF AC (Exe) LDCE
August
Eligibility Criteria: CISF
Nationality
Only Citizens of India will be eligible
Both males and females are eligible to apply for this exam
Educational Qualification
Candidate must hold a Bachelor or equivalent degree from a recognized University
NCC’B’ or ‘C’ Certificate will be a desirable qualification
Appearing candidates are also eligible for this exam.
Age
Minimum age -20 years
Maximum age -35 years
Relaxation for reserved categories :
SC/ST: 5 years
OBC : 3 years
Physical Standards & Medical Standards
Physical Standard: Following are the minimum requirement for all the categories :
Men
Women
Height
165 cms (Gen & SC)
157 cms (Gen & SC)
162.5 cms (ST)
154 cms (ST)
Chest( Unexpanded)
81 cms (wit minimum 5 cms expansion)
–
Weight
50 kg
46 kg
Medical
Medical Standards
A. Eyesight
Better Eye (Corrected vision)
Worse eye (Corrected vision)
Distant vision
6/6 or 6/9
6/12 or 6/9
Near vision
N6 (Corrected)
N9 (Corrected)
Limits of Refractive errors permitted
-4.00 D (including cylinder ) Myopia
+4.00 D (including cylinder) Hypermetropia
B. Carrying Angle
Carrying angle should not be more than 15” for males and 20” for female
C. Ear
Candidates should not have any degree of deafness or ear discharge.
Note: Candidate should not have stammering, TB, Arthritis, high blood sugar, Diabetics, Asthma, or any kind of heart disease.
Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
Candidates who meet the above-mentioned physical and medical standards are allowed to sit the Physical efficiency Test.
This test is only a qualifying test and does not carry any marks, failure in the test will amount to disqualification.
PET will be conducted under the supervision of CISF.
A pregnant female candidate at the time of the PET test will be disqualified.
Male
Female
100 Meters Race
In 16 seconds
In 18 seconds
800 Meters Race
In 3 minutes, 45 seconds
In 4 minutes, 45 seconds
Long Jump
3.5 Meters (3 chances)
3.0 Meters (3 chances)
Shot Put (7.26 kgs)
4.50 Meters
CISF AC (Exe) LDCE EXAM PATTERN
The exam pattern of the Central Industrial Security Force Assistant Commandants Executive Limited Departmental Competitive Exam (CISF AC( EXE) LDCE is as follows :
Phase I: Written Test
Paper
Maximum Marks
Duration
Language
Paper 1: General Ability and Intelligence and Professional
300
2.30 Hours
English & Hindi
Paper 2: Essay, Precis, Writing & Comprehension
100
2.00 Hours
Essay – English & Hindi.
Rest in English
Total
400
Phase II: Physical Efficiency Test and Medical Standard Test.
Male
Female
100 Meters Race
In 16 seconds
In 18 seconds
800 Meters Race
In 3 minutes, 45 seconds
In 4 minutes, 45 seconds
Long Jump
3.5 Meters (3 chances)
3.0 Meters (3 chances)
Shot Put (7.26 kgs)
4.50 Meters
Phase III: Personal Interview /Personal Ability Test.
Candidates who qualify for the Physical Efficiency Test and Medical Standard Test are called for the Personal Interview round. The total marks for the interview are 150. The final letter will be issued post all the above selection processes.
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The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is a standardized English language competency test designed for people who want to study or work abroad where the language of communication is English. It was established in 1989 and is the most popular English language certificate in the world.
It uses a band scale to identify the level of proficiency, with band score 1 considered as non-user and band score -9 considered to be an expert. There are around 10,000 tests locations in more than 140 countries carrying almost 2 million tests every year. More than 9000 organizations across the globe accept this certificate as proof of proficiency in the English Language.
The exam mainly checks the capability of the test takers’ communication in the four basic English language skills, like listening, reading, speaking & writing.
Most the countries like the UK, USA, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand accept the IELTS score for admission to the university.
IELTS Exam: Need and Advantages
The IELTS Exam is needed for admission in universities, colleges and also for career and immigration purposes. This exam is important as the foreign universities and visa granting authorities want to get sure that one does not face communication problems while staying in the country.
The exam is not mandatory as many universities might not even accept the IELTS score for admission. But your chance of getting a student visa may decrease as the visa officer may not be convinced about your English proficiency without the IELTS score.
Therefore, it is always advisable to take the exam and focus to score at least 6 bands overall.
IELTS is jointly owned and managed by the British Council, Cambridge English Language Assessment, and IDP (International Development Program)Education Australia. There are some advantages of this exam keeping in view certain aspects. They are mentioned below :
IELTS for Study
Candidates willing to study abroad and considering undergraduate or postgraduate programs should take the IELTS Academic test. Candidate needs a higher IELTS score to enroll in advanced degrees programs like Masters or Ph.D. to demonstrate that they are quite qualified and can successfully complete a degree in English.
IELTS for Work
Candidate looking for a visa for work abroad needs to provide proof of language proficiency. For a work visa applicant, the candidate has to achieve either competent English or vocational English language skills.
For Canada, applicants should check with the organization they want to work with for their IELTS score.
For New Zealand, the applicants should have an overall score of 4 or higher.
For Australia, the applicant a band score of 5 is considered as vocational English, and a band score of 6 is considered as competent English Speaker.
For the UK, the applicant should score at least a 6.5 score on each of the 4 components.
IELTS for Immigration
The IELTS Life Skills is a new UK government-approved Secure English Language Test (SELT)to support the UK Visas and immigration application (UKVI). This test is known as IELTS Life Skills or IELTS for UKV1. This is provided as proof in support of a UK Visa and Immigration (UKVI) application.
For immigration to New Zealand, an overall score of 6.5 in either the Academic or the General Training modules is needed. This is strictly mandatory for visa applications.
For immigration to Canada, IELTS is accepted along with other standards of the Canadian Language Benchmarks.
For immigration to Australia, both vocational and competent English is needed by the Department of Immigration and Citizenship.
Types of IELTS Exam
1. Academic IELTS
Academic is for people applying for higher education and professional registration in disciplines like medicines, nursing, law, or engineering. The result is graded on a band score ranging from 1 to 9 for each of the four sections like reading, writing, speaking, and listening.
The result is valid for 2 years from the day one receives the result.
2. General Training IELTS
General Training is for those who want to migrate to English-speaking counties like the US, Canada, Australia, and the UK. This test is mainly taken by those who want to apply for secondary education, training program, or want to gain work experience in a country where English is the main language of communication. The result is graded on a band score ranging from 1 to 9 for each of the four sections like reading, writing, speaking, and listening.
The result is valid for 2 years from the day one receives the result.
3. IELTS Life Skills
This test is for UK visas and immigration and is appropriate if you wish to immigrate or have citizenship in the UK. This test only assesses the speaking and listening skills, at level A1 or B1 OF THE Common European Framework of the Reference for Languages (CEFR).
IELTS Life Skill A1 is required for applying for UK Visas and Immigration family, spouse, or partner visa, and IELTS Life Skill B1 is required for obtaining citizenship or permanent residence.
The whole motive or aim of this exam is to assess how well one can communicate in English.
This exam has two possible results: pass or fail. If one has passed the Life Skill A1 or Life Skill B1 test, then one cannot retake the exam within 2 years.
If one has failed the exam, there is no restriction on retaking the exam.
Highlights of the Exam
Exam Name
IELTS
IELTS Full Form
International English Language Testing System
Conducting Body
British Council and IDP Education Ltd
Accepted by
Most popularly by Australia, New Zealand, and the UK, also accepted by Canada and USA.
Anyone can appear for this exam irrespective of age, race, gender, nationality, and religion. However, it is not recommended below the age of 16 years.
Age
Educational Qualification
Attempts
Minimum age should be 16 years and a valid passport
There is no minimum educational qualification need , anyone who wants to pursue higher studies abroad or want to work abroad can write the exam
There is no set limit for the number of attempts. It is advised to not appear for the exam to no closer than once in a period of 2 months
Registration of IELTS
IELTS test is available up to 4 times a month depending upon the demand. There is no set limit for the number of attempts. However, it is advised to not appear for the exam to no closer than once in a period of 2 months.
The Registration fees for the exam is Rs. 14,000, every time you appear for the exam you need to register with this amount of money. Registration can be done in both the mode, is online and offline ( In person)
Online IELTS Registration
Steps to Register for the Exam :
Step 1 : Visit the official website of IELTS.
Step 2 : Go to the button ‘Register for Test ‘ option.
Step 3: Select preferred tests, like the Test Type and available Test Date in the preferred city.
Step 4 : Fill personal details.
Step 5: Fill in registration details.
Step 6: Upload mandatory scanned documents.
Step 7 : Select the colleges where you want to send your Score report.
Step 8: Pay the registration fees.
Step 9: Take the print of the acknowledgment receipt.
Offline (In-Person) IELTS Registration
You can register for the exam in person also by visiting the British Council Office or IDP India Office.
The test pattern comprises four sections-Listening, Reading, Writing, and Speaking. You get individual score for all four sections as well as a total score. The duration of the is 2 hours and 45 minutes.
Exam Pattern
Component
Description
Number of Questions
Duration
Listening
Multiple Choice
40
30 minutes
Diagram labelling
Sentence completion
Summary completion
Reading
Multiple Choice
40
60 minutes
Sentence completion
Summary completion
Matching features
Matching headings
Writing
Two writing tasks
2
60 minutes
Speaking
Three parts in this section
11-14 minutes
IELTS Band Score
The table below gives the description of each band along with the information about the level of English
Band
Skill Level
Meaning
Band 9
Expert user
Has complete command of the English language.
Band 8
Very good user
Has complete command in the English language with rare errors
Band 7
Good user
Has good command in the English language with occasional errors and misunderstanding of words
Band 6
Competent user
Has effective command in the English language with occasional errors and misunderstanding of words
Band 5
Modest user
Has partial command of the English language with frequent errors and misunderstanding of words.
Band 4
Limited user
Has problem in understanding and expressing. Not able to use complex language
Band 3
Extremely limited user
Can understand and convey only the general meaning. Breakdown in the communication is very prominent and frequent
Band 2
Intermittent user
Huge difficulty in understanding, speaking and writing English
Band 1
Non- user
No ability to use the language except a few isolated words
Band 0
Did not attempt the test
No information
Result of Exam
The total IELTS score is the combination of the band score of all 4 sections. You will receive the score based on each of the four skills of the band ranging from 1-9, and then overall band score is awarded.
Once the exam is done, the result will be declared within a few days :
Online Mode :
Intimation will be received from the test center on the day of result about result. Results can be viewed by login with ID, password, passport number & test date. The result will be available online for the next 28 days from the day the result was declared.
Offline Mode :
For the offline or paper-based test, the result will be declared within 13 calendar days from the day of your exam.
IELTS Validity period
The validity of the IELTS score is for 2 years.
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The Combined Defence Service is commonly known as the CDS exam conducted twice a year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for recruitment of the candidate into the following academy :
Indian Military Academy (IMA), Dehradun.
Officer’s Training Academy for Women (OTA), Chennai.
Officer’s Training Academy for Men (OTA), Chennai.
UPSC generally releases the notification of the Combined Defence Service Examinations in the month of August. Aspirants willing to appear for the CDS (I) & (II) exams can apply online by visiting the official website of UPSC.
Notification
Month
CDS (I) Notification
October
CDS (II) Notification
August
CDS (I) Exam
February
CDS (II) Exam
November
CDS (I) Result
March
CDS (II) Result
December
CDS SSB
Post the result of CDS(I) & CDS (II)
Eligibility Criteria of CDS Exam
1.Nationality for CDS Exam
The candidate must be a citizen of India to be eligible for the Combined Defence Services (CDS) must be either of the following :
Candidates must be a citizen of India
Candidates must be a citizen of Nepal or a subject of Bhutan.
Candidates must be Tibetan refugees who came to India before January 1, 1962, for settling permanently in India.
Candidates must a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Burma, Pakistan, Ethiopia, Sri Lanka, Kenya, Myanmar, Uganda, Malawi, Tanzania, Vietnam, Zaire with the motive to settle permanently in India.
2. Educational Qualification Criteria for CDS Exam
Academy
Qualification
Indian Military Academy IMA & Officer’s Training Academy
Bachelor’s degree or its equivalent from a recognized University
Indian Naval Academy ( NNA)
Bachelor’s degree in Engineering or its equivalent from a recognized University/Institution
Indian Air Force Academy (IAFA)
Bachelor’s degree or its equivalent (with Physics & Mathematics at 10+2) from a recognized University or Bachelor’s of Engineering.
3. Age, Sex, and Marital Status for CDS Exam
Academy
Age
Sex
Marital Status
Indian Military Academy IMA
19-24 years
Male
Unmarried
Officer’s Training Academy- Men SSB
19-25 years
Male
Unmarried
Officer’s Training Academy-Women SSB
19-25 years
Female
Unmarried
Indian Naval Academy ( NNA)
19-22 years
Male
Unmarried
Indian Air Force Academy (IAFA)
19-23 years
Male
Unmarried
Note:Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Married candidates above 25 years are eligible to apply. Marriage is not allowed during the training period.
4. Physical Criteria for CDS Exam
The candidate needs to be physically and mentally fit for applying in the Combined Defence Service Examination( CDS I & II ). Candidates are advised to get themselves medically examined before applying for this examination as many candidates fail to qualify for the physical test.
CDS EXAM PATTERN
UPSC conducts exams in two-level as mentioned below. The candidate who clears the written test will be called for the SSB Interview exams.
CDS Exam Stage 1: Written Test
CDS Exam (I) & CDS Exam (II)
Category
Type
Negative Marking
Subject
Duration
Maximum Marks
Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy
Objective
Yes
English
2 hours
100
General Knowledge
2 hours
100
Elementary Mathematics
2 hours
100
Officer’s Training Academy
Objective
Yes
English
2 hours
100
General Knowledge
2 hours
100
Note: Exam mode is offline. Question paper for Mathematics & General Knowledge will be in both the language that is English and Hindi
SSB will conduct the Intelligence & Personality Test. The candidates who clear the written exam will be called for the Intelligence & Personality Test which comprises of the following steps to get to the final result.
Step
Name of the test
Step 1
Officer Intelligence Rating (OTR) Test + Picture Perception Description Test (PP&DT)
Note:The personality of a candidate is assessed by The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) & Psychologist. Based on their review the final letter is issued.
Career Graph of CDS Officer
Post
Promotion
Lieutenant
Upon Training completion.
Captain
2 years of Service
Major
6 years of Service
Lieutenant Colonel
13 years of Service
Colonel
15 years of Service
Colonel (TS)
16 years of Service
Brigadier
23 years of Service
Major General
25years of Service
Lieutenant General
28 years of Service
General
No restrictions as such
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The National Defence Academy Exam is conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the three wings namely the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force.
The National Defence Academy conducts an all-India level examination twice a year to help the candidate make a career in defense services.
NDA (I & II) and NA (I &II) Exam
This exam NDA-I & NDA-II is held twice every year in the month of April and November. National Defence Academy & Naval Academy (NDA & NA) examinations are a two-stage selection process.
The candidate has to first clear the written test with minimum cut-off marks. Subsequently, they will be called for the next round. SSB Service Selection Board will conduct the second stage comprised of a personality test or interview process.
After qualifying for the SSB round the shortlisted candidate will go through the medical test and document verification. Every year approx. 4 lakh candidates apply for this examination.
National Defence Academy -UPSC NDA & NA Proposed Month
The UPSC generally releases the date of the NDA (I) & NA( I) and NDA (II) & NA( II) Examinations notification in the month of January and June respectively.
Aspirants willing to appear for NDA & NA exam can apply online by visiting the official website of UPSC.
Notification
Month
NDA (I) Notification
January
NDA (II) Notification
June
NDA (I) Exam
September
NDA (II) Exam
September
NDA (I) Result
November
NDA (II) Result
November
NDA SSB
Post the result of NDA(I) & NDA (II)
National Defence Academy-Eligibility Criteria
1. Nationality
Candidates must be a citizen of India
Candidates must be a citizen of Nepal or a subject of Bhutan.
Candidates must be Tibetan refugees who came to India before January 1, 1962, for settling permanently in India.
Candidates must a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Burma, Pakistan, Ethiopia, Sri Lanka, Kenya, Myanmar, Uganda, Malawi, Tanzania, Vietnam, Zaire with the motive to settle permanently in India.
2. Educational Qualification Criteria
Wing
Qualification
Indian Army
Appearing/Completed class 12th (10+2) or its equivalent exam from a recognized board or University
Indian Navy and Indian Air Force
Appearing/Completed class 12th (10+2) or its equivalent exam from a recognized board or University with Physics and Mathematics as a compulsory subject.
Note: Candidates who have failed the exam of INSB/PABT earlier are not eligible for the Air Force Exam.
3. Age limit, Sex & Marital Status
Exam
Age Limit
Sex
Marital Status
NDA & NA (I)
Not before July 2, 2000, and not later than July 1, 2003
Male
Unmarried
NDA & NA (II)
Not before January 2, 2001, and not later than January 1, 2004
Male
Unmarried
Note 1:The DOB mentioned in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination certificate available will be considered by the concerned authority.
Note 2:Candidates are informed not to marry-until the training is completed.
Physical Criteria :
The candidate needs to be physically and mentally fit for applying to the National Defence Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy (NA) Examination.
Candidates are advised to get themselves medically examined before applying for this examination as many candidates fail to qualify for the medical test.
Height & Weight Standards
Height & Weight Standards-Army/Air Force
Height & Weight Standards- Navy
Height in CM (without shoes)
Weight in KG
Height in CM (without shoes)
Weight in KG
16-17 years
17-18 years
18-19 years
16-17 years
17-18 years
18-19 years
152
42.5
44
45
152
44
45
46
155
43.5
45.3
47
155
45
46
47
157
45
47
48
157
46
47
49
160
46.5
48
49
160
47
48
50
162
48
50
51
162
48
50
52
165
50
52
53
165
50
52
53
167
51
53
54
168
52
53
55
170
52.5
55
56
170
53
55
57
173
54
57
58
173
55
57
59
175
56
59
60
175
57
59
61
178
58
61
62
178
59
61
62
180
60
63
64.5
180
61
63
64
183
62.5
65
66.5
183
63
65
67
Special requirements of Pilot in the Air Force are mentioned below
Measurement
Minimum
Maximum
Leg Length
99 cm
120 cm
Thigh Length
–
64 cm
Sitting Height
81.50 cm
96 cm
Vision Standard
The distance vision (corrected) should be 6/6 in the better eye(6/9) in the worse eye. Myopia and hypermetropia should not be more than 2.5 D & 3.5 D respectively. The color vision standard for the army should be (CP-III). The detailed vision standard is given below :
Eyesight for Naval Candidate
Eyesight for Air Force Candidate
Maddox Rod Test
Uncorrected without glass
6/6
Uncorrected without glass
6/6, 6/9
At 6 Meters
Exo-6 prism D
Corrected with glass
6/6
Corrected with glass
6/6 (Only for Hypermetropia)
Eso-6 prism D
Limits of Myopia
-0.75
Limits of Myopia
NIL
Hyper-1 prismD
Limits of Hypermetropia
+1.5
Limits of Hypermetropia
+2.00 D Sph
Hypro -1 prism D
Limits of color Perception
I
Manifest Myopia
NIL
Exo-16 prism D
Binocular Vision
III
Tinoscopic Myopia
0.5
At 33cms
Eso-6 prism D
Colour Vision
CP-I (MLT)
Hyper-1 prismD
Astigmatism
+0.75 Cyl ( within +2.0 D.Max)
Hypro -1 prism D
Near Vision
N-5 each eye
Physical Conditioning
The candidate needs to be in good physical condition to meet the following routine
Skipping
Chin-ups (Min-08)
Push-ups & sit-ups (Min- 20 each)
Rope climbing 3-4 meters
Running 2.4 km in 15 minutes.
NDA Officer: Roles & Responsibility
The role of an NDA officer is very challenging and it demands a lot of perseverance and responsibility. NDA officer gets into the job of Defence forces like Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Career Graph of NDA /NA Officer
The highest position, a National Defence Academy officer can desire is General in Army, Admiral in Navy, and Air Chief Marshal in Air Force. The following is the career path of an NDA Officer.
The training starts in the academy, a cadet is allotted to one of the 18 Squadrons for the next three years. The Squadrons are named as Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Foxtrot, Golf, Hunter, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Panther, Quebec, and RomeoNo.1, No.2, No.3, and No.4 Battalions have four squadrons each while No.5 has two squadrons. Each squadron has approximately 100-120 cadets.
UPSC conducts exams in two-level as mentioned below. The candidate who clears the written test will be called for the SSB Interview exams.
Stage 1: NDA and NA Examination (I)
Subject
Type
Duration
Maximum Marks
Negative Marking
Mathematics
Objective
2.30 hours
300
Yes
General Ability Test
Objective
2.30 hours
600
Yes
Total
900
Stage 2: SSB Personality Test/Interview
900
Stage 1: NDA and NA Examination (II)
Mathematics
Objective
2.30 hours
300
Yes
General Ability Test
Objective
2.30 hours
600
Yes
Total
900
Stage 2: SSB Personality Test/Interview
900
Note: Exam mode is offline. Question paper for Mathematics & General Ability Test will be in both the language that is English and Hindi
National Defence Academy focuses on getting the best resources by going through the most competitive exam and subsequently by the most rigorous training.
Career Planning plays an important role in shaping your career, so is the planning to choose the best suitable B-School for yourself. You need to focus on various aspects before jumping into a final decision.
Career path analysis helps you in getting the best road map. Get your career assessment test by appearing for the free student profiling process. https://eduxact.edumilestones.com/
Study_Abroad
Click the link below and get an exhaustive career report and book for a free counseling session. For Studying abroad in 15000+ across 20+ Countries visit the mentioned link.
The National Eligibility Test is popularly known as UGC NET or NTA -UGC-NET. This is an all India level examination for adjudicating the eligibility for the post of Assistant Professors and Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) in Indian colleges and Universities
JRF awardees are eligible to pursue research in their postgraduate subject from the top institution or national organizations.
The UGC NET exam was started by UGC, but later the CBSE conducted the test. From December 2018 the responsibility of UGC NET has been transferred to the National Testing Agency (NTA), which has been established as an autonomous body testing organization for admission and fellowship in higher education institutions.
There are two NETs conducted in India by National Testing Agency (NTA). They are as follows :
University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test (UGC NET)
University Grants Commission Council of Scientific and Industrial Research Eligibility Test (UGC CSIR)
Highlights of UGC NET
Exam Name
University Grant Commission (UGC) National Eligibility Test (NET)
Organizing Body
National Testing Agency (NTA)
Frequency
Twice a year (June & December)
Exam Level
National
Exam Mode
Online
Number of Registration
Approx. 8 lakh
Official Website
Ugcnet.nta.nic.in
NTA releases the notification of the UGC NET exam in the month of June & December
UGC NET JUNE EXAM
UGC NET DECEMBER EXAM
Event
Tentative Month
Event
Tentative Month
UGC NET Notification
March
UGC NET Notification
September
UGC NET Exam
June
UGC NET Exam
December
UGC NET Result
July
UGC NET Result
December
Eligibility Criteria
1. Nationality
A candidate should be a citizen of India.
2. Age Limit
Category
Age Limit
Assistant Professor
No upper limit
Junior Research Fellowship (General)
30 years
Junior Research Fellowship (OBC/SC/ST)
35 years
Note : As per the Government of India reservation policy, a minimum of 27%, 15% ,7.5%, and 5% of the fellowship are reserved for the Other Backward Class (OBC) non-creamy layer/ Scheduled Caste( SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST) and Person with Disability (PWD).
3. Educational Qualification
A candidate should have completed the Master’s Degree or equivalent examination with a minimum of 55% marks from a UGC recognized University /Institution in Humanities (including languages) and Social Science, Computer Science, and Application, Electronic Science, etc.
The candidate belonging to Other Backward Class (OBC) non-creamy layer/ Scheduled Caste( SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST) and Person with Disability (PWD) are to be entitled 5% marks relaxation. They should have completed the Master’s Degree or equivalent examination with a minimum of 50% marks from a UGC recognized University /Institution in Humanities (including languages) and Social Science, Computer Science and Application, Electronic Science, etc.
D. degree holders, who have passed master’s degree before September 1991, with a minimum of 50% marks are also eligible to apply for Lectureship.
Note:Candidate belonging to the Transgender category will be eligible to draw the same relaxation in fees, age, qualifying criteria in NET ( JRF & Assistant Professor) as are available for SC/ST/PWD.
UGC NET EXAM PATTERN
NTA conducts the examination on behalf of UGC. This exam consists of two papers and is conducted on the same day.
PAPER 1 & 2
Paper
No of question
Max Marks
Type
Duration
Paper 1
50
100
Objective (MCQ)
1 hour 30 minutes
Paper 2
100
200
Objective (MCQ)
1 hour 30 minutes
Total
150
300
3 hours
Note: All the questions are mandatory to attempt. There is no negative marking.
UGC CSIR
The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research Eligibility Test (UGC CSIR)is conducted by NTA in CBT mode to select the candidate eligible for Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and for Lectureship (LS)/ Assistant Professor in Indian colleges and Universities.
Highlights of UGC CSIR EXAM
Exam Name
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research University Grant Commission National Eligibility Test (CSIR UGC NET)
Organizing Body
National Testing Agency (NTA)
Frequency
Twice a year (June & December)
Exam Level
National
Exam Mode
Online
Number of Registration
Approx. 3 lakh
Official Website
csirnet.nta.nic.in
NTA releases the notification of the UGC CSIR exam in the month of March & September :
UGC CSIR NET JUNE EXAM
UGC CSIR NET DECEMBER EXAM
Event
Tentative Month
Event
Tentative Month
UGC CSIR Notification
March
UGC CSIR Notification
September
UGC CSIR Exam
June
UGC CSIR Exam
December
UGC CSIR Result
July
UGC CSIR Result
December
Eligibility Criteria
1. Nationality
A candidate should be citizen of India.
2. Age Limit
Category
Age Limit
Assistant Professor
No upper limit
Junior Research Fellowship (General)
28 years
Junior Research Fellowship (OBC-Non Creamy Layer)
31 years
Junior Research Fellowship (SC/ST/Physically & Visually handicapped/Female)
33 years
As per the Government of India reservation policy , a minimum of 27% , 15% ,7.5%, and 5% of the fellowship are reserved for the Other Backward Class (OBC) non-creamy layer/ Scheduled Caste( SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST) and Person with Disability (PWD)
3. Educational Qualification
Candidate must have completed M.Sc. or an equivalent degree/Integrated BS-MS/BS – 4 years/ BE/B.Tech/Pharma/MBBS with a minimum of 55% marks. For SC/ST/Physically & Visually handicapped candidates, a minimum of 50% marks is needed.
Sc (Hons) or equivalent or candidate enrolled in the Integrated MS-PhD program can also apply.
Candidate with bachelor’s degree and who has also enrolled in Ph.D./Integrated Ph.D. program can also apply.
D. degree holders, who have passed master’s degree before September,1991, with a minimum of 50% marks are also eligible to apply for Lectureship.
UGC CSIR NET EXAM PATTERN
NTA conducts the examination on behalf of UGC. The exam pattern is highlighted below:
Particulars
Description
Mode of Exam
Computer Based Test (CBT)
Exam Type
Objective (MCQ)
Exam Duration
3 hours
Exam Medium
English & Hindi
Total Marks
200
Total Questions
Section A: 20
Section B : 40
Section C : 60
Negative Marking
Yes
UGC CSIR NET EXAM is conducted in 5 subjects : Chemical Science, Earth Science, Life Science, Mathematics Science and Physical Science.
Section-wise Exam Pattern of Chemical Science
Parts
No of questions
Questions to attempt
Marks per question
Negative Marking
Part A
20
15
2
0.5
Part B
40
35
2
0.5
Part C
60
25
4
1
Total
120
75
200
–
Section-wise Exam Pattern of Earth Science
Parts
No of questions
Questions to attempt
Marks per question
Negative Marking
Part A
20
15
2
0.5
Part B
50
35
2
0.5
Part C
80
25
4
1.32
Total
150
75
200
–
Section-wise Exam Pattern of Life Science
Parts
No of questions
Questions to attempt
Marks per question
Negative Marking
Part A
20
15
2
0.5
Part B
50
35
2
0.5
Part C
70
25
4
1
Total
140
75
200
–
Section-wise Exam Pattern of Mathematical Science
Parts
No of questions
Questions to attempt
Marks per question
Negative Marking
Part A
20
15
2
0.5
Part B
40
25
3
0.75
Part C
60
20
4.75
0
Total
120
60
200
–
Section-wise Exam Pattern of Physical Science
Parts
No of questions
Questions to attempt
Marks per question
Negative Marking
Part A
20
15
2
0.5
Part B
25
20
3.5
0.875
Part C
30
20
5
1.25
Total
75
55
200
–
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